Few days ago I found something very interesting on 9gag:

When I first read this post, I was amazed because I never thought about this obvious fact!!

There are lots of interesting comments, but here is a proof from the comments:

…. Infinite x zero (as a limit) is indefinite. But infinite x zero (as a number) is zero. So lim( 0 x exp (x²) ) = 0 while lim ( f(X) x exp(X) ) with f(X)->0 is indefinite …

Though the statement made in the post is very vague and can lead to different opinions, like what about doing the product with surreal numbers, but we can safely avoid this by considering the product of real numbers only.

Now an immediate question should be (since every positive real number has a negative counterpart):

Is the sum of all real numbers zero?

In my opinion the answer should be “no”. As of now I don’t have a concrete proof but the intuition is:

Sum of a convergent series is the limit of partial sums, and for real numbers due to lack of starting point we can’t define a partial sum. Hence we can’t compute the limit of this sum and the sum of series of real numbers doesn’t exist.

Moreover, since the sum of all “positive” real numbers is not a finite value (i.e. the series of positive real numbers is divergent) we conclude that we can’t rearrange the terms in series of “all” real numbers (Riemann Rearrangement Theorem). Thus the sum of real numbers can only be conditionally convergent. So, my above argument should work. Please let me know if you find a flaw in these reasonings.

Also I found following interesting answer on Quora:

The real numbers are uncountably infinite, and the standard notions of summation are only defined for countably many terms.

**Note: ***Since we are dealing with infinite product and sum, we can’t argue using algebra of real numbers (like commutativity etc.).*